Falling down in Revelation

The image of "falling down" is used a handful of times in Revelation. John "fell down" a few times in Revelation. Twice he did before an angel, and both times he was rebuked.

Then I fell down at his feet to worship him, but he said to me, "You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers who hold to the testimony of Jesus. Worship God." For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
(Rev 19:10)

I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me, but he said to me, "You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God."
(Rev 22:8-9)

John sees the angel, is tinged with emotions of fear, deep reverence, and awe, and responds by falling down before him. In both cases, the angel sternly rebukes John. The responses are almost identical. They clearly view this act of "falling down" as a sign of deep reverence and worship. The angel, in both cases, clearly viewed this as something to be directed only toward God. In each case, the angel says in his rebuke, "Worship God."

The whole notion of "falling down" with various descriptors is used repeatedly in Revelation. In every instance, it is clearly referring to deep reverence and worship.

The various phrases used in Revelation:

"fell at his feed as though dead." (Rev 1:17)
"fell down before the Lamb" (Rev 5:8)
"fell down and worshiped." (Rev 5:14)
"fell on their faces before the throne and worshiped God" (Rev 7:11)
"fell on their faces and worshipped God" (Rev 11:16)
"fell down and worshiped God" (Rev 19:4)
"fell down at his feet to worship him" (Rev 19:10)
"fell down to worship at the feet" (Rev 22:8)

The first three are referring to Jesus as the object. The one in Rev 1:17 is the other time John fell down, and it was before Jesus. Did Jesus rebuke Him? No. He comforted Him and referred to Himself as the "first and the last," a title Jehovah used of Himself in Isaiah 44:6 and 48:12.

In chapter 5, the elders "fell down before the Lamb" and praised Him. They, again, "fell down and worshiped" a few verses later. No qualification, no rebuke given. Jesus is worshiped, and it is appropriate. A Jehovah's Witness might point out "ahh, but it doesn't say 'worshipped Jesus.'" Or a Witness might say, "In those other places, it doesn't say 'and worshipped.'" Does it have to? Not if you look at the context of Rev 5 and the obvious connotation of this act and imagery in Revelation. When the elders fell down, what they did in the next verses IS worship.

There is not an absence of data showing that Jesus is equal with the Father, in nature, or that Jesus is worshipped. However, for the Witness, there is a presupposition that will not let them hear the text speak. It goes like this: "It is impossible for Jesus to be Deity because Jesus is not the Father. The one God, Jehovah, is unitarian and there is no other possibility."

I will post something more on Revelation 5 at some point, hopefully soon. Take a look at verses 6-14. Now, why doesn't it say "and worshipped" when the elders fell down before the Lamb? John doesn't have to say it. They did it in the verses that followed. They sang worship to Him with those beautiful words.